Question 10: What about Matthew 10:34 "Do not suppose that I have come to bring peace to the earth. I did not come to bring peace, but a sword."
If Jesus brought a sword then how could he possible be bringing peace? If he bore a sword why can we not also bear swords, at the very least, for the cause of Christ or defending others? Doesn't this prove Jesus did not have nonviolence as a part of his agenda? Some have suggested that because Jesus says that he did not come to bring peace, but a sword, he is advocating the use of violence. However, in the parallel passage in Luke, Jesus says “Do you suppose that I came to grant peace on earth?I tell you, no, but rather division.”"The sword" is a term often used to describe division, not necessarily physical violence. The opposite of peace is not violence; it is conflict.
The context here is also very important.Jesus just finished telling his disciples about the hard road ahead of them.They would be taken to court, beaten, persecuted, and hated because of Jesus. Therefore, if Jesus is referencing a literal “sword” here, the disciples are surely on the receiving end, rather than on the offensive.He goes on to say that he who has found his life will lose it, and he who has lost his life will find it. We cannot take this verse out of context and suggest that Jesus is advocating violence.The entire passage is about enduring persecution.
After his mention of the sword, Jesus talks about family relationships, not natural enemies or nations.Unless we believe that Jesus was advocating a literal war against family, this passage is best understood as Jesus saying that He will cause division between those who accept Him and those who reject Him. Within the context, it makes little sense otherwise.
I am a member of XCCP, a Christian blog on nonviolence. This blog is an answer to one of the questions raised on the blog.
Should Christians be in the military or police force? What about the positions within those organizations that do not require violent activity?
This is a difficult question, and a personal one for those of us who have friends in our churches who in the military.Probably the most relevant scripture is in Romans 13.
“Everyone must submit himself to the governing authorities, for there is no authority except that which God has established. The authorities that exist have been established by God. Consequently, he who rebels against the authority is rebelling against what God has instituted, and those who do so will bring judgment on themselves. For rulers hold no terror for those who do right, but for those who do wrong. Do you want to be free from fear of the one in authority? Then do what is right and he will commend you. For he is God's servant to do you good. But if you do wrong, be afraid, for he does not bear the sword for nothing. He is God's servant, an agent of wrath to bring punishment on the wrongdoer. Therefore, it is necessary to submit to the authorities, not only because of possible punishment but also because of conscience. This is also why you pay taxes, for the authorities are God's servants, who give their full time to governing. Give everyone what you owe him: If you owe taxes, pay taxes; if revenue, then revenue; if respect, then respect; if honor, then honor.”
It is important, however, to remember that at the end of Romans 12, leading into this passage, is an exhortation to love our enemies, and do good rather and evil to our enemies.This is the behavior that is acceptable for followers of Christ.
In Romans 13, it is with the assumption that followers of Christ are not in the military that Paul speaks of the military as one of God’s instruments of justice.It is impossible to draw a direct correlation between military service in Paul’s day, and to our own.Military service meant acknowledgement of the legion’s pagan god, which was obviously not permissible for Christians.For them, the issue was not only violence, but worship of pagan gods.
Thus, in Romans 12, we have instructions for Christians.In Romans 13, we have instructions for Christian interaction with an explicitly non-Christian government and military.As Christians, our primary allegiance lies with Jesus, His teachings, and His Kingdom.Any other allegiance must submit to our allegiance to Christ.If Christ commands us to love our enemies (which I believe has clearly been established in scripture and throughout the XCCP blog), we are obligated to do so regardless of any national commitments to do otherwise.While our nation may consider it honorable to fight for the lives of those around us, the example and teaching given to us by Jesus is to lay down our lives peacefully.Nowhere in the teachings of Christ are we encouraged to use violence for even the greatest causes. We are called to live by God's means, and trust God with the end result.
To answer the second part of the question, I believe it would be difficult for a Christian to have non-violent roles in explicitly violent organizations.If I support someone committing armed robbery, I am guilty of being an accomplice even if I just drive a car.If someone wrongs me, and I give someone else a weapon in order to hurt the person who wronged me, I am not acting in love towards my enemy.
We cannot separate our own role from the vision of the company we work for.I could not, in good conscience, be in charge of travel arrangements for a doctor who is traveling to abort babies – even if my direct responsibility isn’t inherently sinful. In the same way, I cannot support an organization that behaves in a way that I believe is clearly against the teachings of Jesus.
While I believe our military and police force often have noble goals (protecting the innocent, preventing genocide, etc.), they use means that I simply cannot justify as a follower of Christ. I cannot kill those that I’m called to love, no matter how grievous their offenses, or how much threat they pose to me or my family.Violence is simply not a tool at our disposal as Christians, whether personally or nationally.
As some of you know, I contribute to a sports blog, notinhd.com. This past weekend my dad and I went to Pittsburgh for the Dodgers-Pirates series. I wrote a blogabout the experience on the site, so if you're at all interested, go check it out!
Obviously, nonviolence is the rejection of violence.However, it also includes the rejection of using the threat of violence (i.e. the Cold War.)Ideally, the ethic of nonviolence entails other means to accomplish peace and justice, rather than inaction – however I’ll get into that in the next question.
Is there a difference between pacifism and nonviolence?
While I often use the terms interchangeably, I think pacifism is often associated with the root word “passive.”This is the most common complaint against those that refuse violence – that they’re sitting back and doing nothing in the face of injustice.If this is what is meant by pacifism, it is a stance that the Christian must reject.
On the other hand, “nonviolence” entails a passion for justice and equality.Someone who is nonviolent rejects both violence AND passivity.The person committed to nonviolence uses a variety of means to accomplish justice – from promoting peace talks, to participating and organizing sit-ins, protests, and political involvement.The creative possibilities for nonviolent protests are endless.
If so, what are the effects of that difference?
Passivity merely trades one offense (violence) for another (apathy).Nonviolence attempts to end the use of violence and oppression without resorting to violence to accomplish that end. Passivity is not ultimately part of the solution, while the person committed to nonviolence utilizes creative, nonviolent means until a solution is found.
I regularly read the blog of one of my seminary professors, Ben Witherington III. Tonight I was reading his blog on the ten commandments, and he said something I found interesting...
In Jesus' famous prohibitions of divorce, there are exception clauses in Mt. 5.32 and Mt. 19.9--- the Greek says no divorce except on grounds of porneia. Now this word is different from the Greek word for adultery, which is moixeia. So the exception he is allowing for is not adultery. Porneia in its most basic sense has to do with a porne which is to say with a prostitute. It is the word from which we get the word pornography. So it is possible Jesus is saying no divorce except on grounds of prostitution. It is also possible that porneia in this texts refers to incest, another meaning it regularly has, including elsewhere in the NT. The least likely translation is that porneia is used in its broadest sense of any and all kinds of sexual sin. But this then does not explain the shocked response of the disciples to this pronouncement of Jesus, in Mt. 19. Thus, in conclusion it is a mistake to translate either Mt. 5.32 or 19.9 as reading 'no divorce except on grounds of adultery/marital unfaithfulness. This is surely not what Jesus is saying, in these verses.
I've heard people complain that the teaching that adultery is the only justification for divorce is rather strict. After all, most churches accept divorce on many other grounds, including remarriage after divorce. Could it be that Jesus' teachings on divorce were even more strict than we've even thought?